SARMS and Androgens

[Spank]

Can anyone verify or refute the following information?

SARMS work by binding to androgen receptors in a selective manner preferring muscle tissue.

SARMS up-regulate the body's natural production of androgen receptors.


If both of these statements are true, then wouldn't it be better to run SARMs like Ostarine as a "kickstart" to an androgen cycle rather than stacking them due to the fact that they will compete for the same receptors and/or the androgen will default to the path of least resistance, which may or may not be organ tissue androgen receptors?

I keep reading posts about traditional AAS stacks that are created to pair compounds that interact with the body in different ways to get the best synergy and was just curious if anyone here has read anything about this as it aplplies to SARMs?

Searching seems to just bring up really basic and repetitive information on SARMS in general and often contains conflicting information regarding how bad the suppression is and how effective the compound is.

[D-575]

Bump because I was wondering the SAME EXACT thing.

If sarms are selective wouldn't they somehow eventually compete for the same receptor as a traditional DS or AAS binds to?

If DS/AAS bind to all ARs and sarms only bind to a select few, wouldn't the select few sarms bind to eventually coincide with the ones DS/AAS are binding with?

Or is the whole mechanism at which sarms illicit their effects completely different?

Some say to not use sarms in PCT as well because there is some potential of suppression with sarms. So when is the best and appropriate time to run a sarm? My logic would say in between cycles.